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91b5e145-57f2-5307-99e4-eafd75643de4
The concentration of a specific gas in solution depends on which of the following?
Temperature of the solution
Volume of the system
Solubility of the specific gas in that solution
Molecular weight of the gas
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
7b7f7b61-6bd1-500b-bfa7-dcef7ae8a213
Which of the following statements is true about the partial pressure of a gas at equilibrium?
Directly proportional to its concentration of gas in solution
Inversely proportional to its concentration of gas in solution
Less than its concentration of gas in solution
Greater than its concentration of gas in solution
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
dd9833d1-8058-5dfc-a9d8-962d9f4c4590
A vaporizer is mishandled and accidentally tipped on its side. Which of the following is the best course of action to take?
Run high fresh gas flows with the dial set to a high concentration for 30 minutes.
Run high fresh gas flows with the dial set to a low concentration for 30 minutes.
Run low fresh gas flows with the dial set to a low concentration for 30 minutes.
Run low fresh gas flows with the dial set to a high concentration for 30 minutes.
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
973f2910-489a-5526-9d89-4bc72a61abd5
Which of the following would increase the output concentration of a volatile anesthetic from a vaporizer?
Fresh gas flow rate of 100 mL/min
Fresh gas flow rate of 20 L/min
Decreased operating room temperature
Significantly increasing the ratio of oxygen to nitrous oxide
4
D
2
null
null
null
null
null
b06f7854-4598-50c5-b336-2e7aa2245657
To decrease temperature fluctuations while delivering an anesthetic agent, manufacturers seek to use vaporizer materials that have which of the following properties?
Low specific heat, high thermal conductivity
Low specific heat, low thermal conductivity
High specific heat, high thermal conductivity
High specific heat, low thermal conductivity
4
C
2
null
null
null
null
null
32890c9f-ed1d-53a6-a2bb-7aa6f8d1863c
6. A portable E-cylinder of oxygen has 1760 psig. In approximately what time frame will the cylinder be depleted if used at 8 L/min?
30 minutes
45 minutes
60 minutes
85 minutes
4
C
2
null
null
null
null
null
02200767-785c-5405-811c-45402a212a8c
Which of the following statements defines the critical temperature?
The temperature at which a liquid will boil
The highest temperature at which a gas can exist in liquid form
The temperature at which a substance can exist as a gas or liquid
The temperature at which a solid becomes a liquid
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
3ed86ad8-b15d-5ffb-8627-58d0fc19307e
Which of the following describes the partial pressure of inhaled anesthetics in the central nervous system (CNS), blood, and alveoli at equilibrium?
CNS partial pressure (PCNS) = blood partial pressure (Pblood) = alveolar partial pressure (Palveolar)
PCNS > Pblood = Palveolar
PCNS < Pblood = Palveolar
PCNS = Pblood < Palveolar
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
56cca7ab-f77c-55dd-a356-be20fb69494d
Which of the following would increase the rate of rise of Fa/Fi?
A high blood:gas solubility
A high cardiac output
A low minute ventilation
A high anesthetic concentration
4
D
2
null
null
null
null
null
5d35be6f-8e8f-57d8-9970-401c6ab6dbde
After an 8-hour general anesthetic case with volatile agents, which tissue group plays the greatest role in determining emergence time?
Vessel-rich tissue
Muscle
Fat
Each is equal
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
9c871117-866d-5180-b574-9d5a76869d09
Which of the following is the purpose of the check valve on the anesthesia machine?
To prevent hypoxic gas mixtures
To prevent gas flow from the common gas outlet to the vaporizers
To prevent overly high flows of oxygen
To ensure adequate ratios of oxygen to nitrogen
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
153813d4-2c91-58f1-b2a9-bbc97b09b3c7
Which of the following flowmeter arrangements would be the most likely to lead to a hypoxic gas mixture?
N2O, Air, O2
Air, N2O, O2
N2O, O2 , Air
O2 , Air, N2O
4
D
2
null
null
null
null
null
63ae411c-c39b-5859-b15b-ae5a462a8de0
Standards for basic anesthetic monitoring during general anesthesia include which of the following?
Continuous display of MAC
Continuous display of electrocardiogram
Continuous display of tidal volume
Continuous display of temperature
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
a6682a0f-c8d7-5a35-82af-6d86b6745c8b
14. Which of the following would cause an abrupt decrease in the end-tidal CO2 (ETCO2 ) during general anesthesia?
Hyperthermia
Sepsis
Shivering
Pulmonary embolism
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
7b01c1e5-3864-5353-ac9a-c8cf239784f1
To mitigate the effects of attenuation during ultrasonography, an anesthesiologist would perform which of the following maneuvers?
Use a low-frequency signal.
Use a high-frequency signal.
Increase the amplitude.
Decrease the amplitude.
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
d2d5b941-ade8-5cda-bc81-f8f75ee3fff0
To maximize the axial resolution of an ultrasound image, an anesthesiologist would use which of the following?
Long pulses of low frequency
Long pulses of high frequency
Short pulses of low frequency
Short pulses of high frequency
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
f75f92fb-09ee-5221-ad78-a45b9843aa66
Flow proportioning systems of anesthesia machines were designed to prevent which of the following?
Inconsistent proportions of volatile anesthetic gases
Hypoxic mixtures of nitrogen and oxygen
Inaccurate proportions of gas flow to the common gas outlet
Direct communication between the high-pressure and low-pressure circuits
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
5e0e2fcf-3cbd-524e-b668-2227f04235dd
Which of the following devices prevents the delivery of a hypoxic mixture by ensuring appropriate connections from the hospitals' pipeline gas supply to the anesthesia machine?
Second-stage oxygen pressure regulator
Pin Index Safety System
Diameter Index Safety System
Check valve
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
3ef1ad1f-0ac0-5a9b-86db-276712ae597a
An isolated power system (IPS) acts to prevent which of the following situations?
Prevention of operating room power loss
Prevention of an ungrounded operating room
Prevention of macroshock
Prevention of microshock
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
1694adaa-ae5d-585d-a9fa-8e6e2ecb6a1d
All of the following are functions of the equipment ground wire EXCEPT which one?
Provides a low-resistance path for fault currents to decrease the risk of macroshock.
Minimizes leakage currents that may cause microshock in certain patients.
Provides information to the line isolation monitor on the status of an ungroundedsystem.
Acts to eliminate the need for ground fault circuit interrupters (GFCIs).
4
D
1
null
null
null
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null
395ec59d-53f2-53ef-a6f1-bd06e381a35a
When preparing to place a thoracic epidural, you palpate the inferior border of the scapula. This landmark corresponds to which level of the vertebral column?
C7-T1
T4-T6
T10-T11
T7-T8
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
b0bdc414-3df4-5a76-82a9-402dc61685c9
Assuming normal anatomy, which of the following landmarks is appropriate for gaining subclavian venous access?
Needle insertion medial to the sternocleidomastoid muscle, just medial to the carotid artery
Needle insertion above the inguinal ligament, lateral to the femoral artery
Needle insertion at the midpoint of the clavicle with the needle directed toward the suprasternal notch
Needle insertion at the lateral border of the clavicular head of the sternocleidomastoid muscle in the interscalene groove
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
85e6ea56-9a47-55c0-be3a-525ce8ca3849
While providing anesthesia for a 15-month-old, 5-kg girl undergoing strabismus surgery, you notice that the patient suddenly becomes hypotensive and bradycardic while the surgeons are applying direct pressure to the globe. Despite release of pressure, the patient continues to be hypotensive and bradycardic. After treatment with atropine, the patient becomes normotensive
CN VII
CN VI
CN V
CN III
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
1bb76e22-6dbf-5b17-bbdf-0e6cde9f9440
Which of the following treatments for glaucoma has been shown to increase the duration of action of succinylcholine?
Echothiophate
Dipivefrin
Betaxolol
Cyclopentolate
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
fac72e79-03f6-520b-94c2-4c09500cf391
5. The muscles of the larynx are innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve EXCEPT which of the following?
Thyroarytenoid
Thyroepiglotticus
Cricothyroid
Transverse arytenoids
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
f269a857-d01c-54fc-9dee-79434cd5ac5f
The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) provides sensory innervation to all of the following structures EXCEPT which one?
Posterior 1/3 of tongue
Rostral epiglottis
Pharynx
Vocal cords
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
2815d069-33eb-5903-98fd-bba277c9880f
Which of the following structures would be effectively anesthetized by injection of lidocaine into the anterior tonsillar pillars bilaterally?
Soft palate and oropharynx
Anterior 2/3 of tongue
Hypopharynx
Vocal cords
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
e82630e5-5655-5e26-aceb-4ae986e17222
Which of the following structures would be effectively anesthetized by injection of lidocaine inferior to the greater cornu of the hyoid bone?
Recurrent laryngeal nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Superior laryngeal nerve, internal branch
Superior laryngeal nerve, external branch
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
3a35c4f4-622e-5782-867f-66a4f6360dd2
While performing a preoperative assessment of your patient, you note that on recent transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE) there was abnormal movement of the inferior wall with increased heart rates, whereas all other portions were noted to move normally. Which of the following arteries most likely has a stenotic lesion?
Posterior descending artery
Left circumflex artery
Left anterior descending artery
Right coronary artery
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
fe9576d7-21e1-5104-9404-571502b8ab06
The leaflets of the aortic valve are named which of the following?
Anterior and posterior
Anterior, posterior, and septal
Right coronary, left coronary, and noncoronary
Right, left, and anterior
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
af8092ac-0458-5cdb-9d74-b15e5cd49855
The nipple line is at what dermatomal level?
T2
T4
T6
T8
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
d2f697e1-d0dd-59e9-8589-cfe77118d01b
12. In regard to the trachea, all of the following are true EXCEPT which one?
Normally half of the trachea is intrathoracic and half is extrathoracic.
Normal tracheal movement in an adult can result in endotracheal movement of 4 cm with neck flexion and extension.
The tracheal rings are located anteriorly.
The trachea is the only part of the bronchial tree that does not participate in gas exchange.
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
08775008-8a33-5102-8fa0-d6851bb113f9
During bronchoscopy, where does the right upper lobe bronchus usually take off?
5 cm past the carina
Located farther away from the carina than the lingular bronchus on the left
2.5 cm past the carina
It has little anatomic variation
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
9e243fc2-c65a-5125-9b28-60ad4fef2afc
You are taking care of a 10-month-old boy presenting for bilateral orchiopexy. You plan to perform a caudal block for postoperative pain. All of the following
Posterior superior iliac spines (PSISs)
Sacral ala
Sacral cornu
Sacral hiatus
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
736d2755-56de-5381-9dee-0d5c7b69801b
When performing a single-shot caudal block, you must first pierce through which ligament?
Sacrococcygeal
Sacrotuberous
Sacrospinous
Sacroiliac
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
6192c7db-cbfe-5281-9fc2-809ecc0bfaab
All of the following are true of the femoral triangle EXCEPT which one?
Superior border: formed by the inguinal ligament
Lateral border: formed by the medial border of the sartorius muscle
Medial border: formed by the medial border of the adductor longus muscle
Medial to lateral structures: femoral nerve, artery, vein, lymphatics
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
22f45e15-f332-5ee7-b53b-31f00d263e85
A fracture of the proximal humerus can result in all of the following EXCEPT which one?
Inability to abduct the arm at the shoulder
Decreased sensation over the shoulder
Wrist drop
Atrophy of shoulder muscles
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
6a4e87ba-ca75-5fec-bc7c-72be52fc70c9
What is the anatomic location of the cords of the brachial plexus?
Above the clavicle, at the lateral border of the clavicular head of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
At the clavicle, lateral to the subclavian artery
Below the clavicle, closely related to the axillary artery
Below the clavicle, closely related to the axillary vein
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
923b60a5-ccbe-5da1-92ff-37743121ba9f
19. You are taking care of a 27-year-old G3P2 woman for whom you placed an epidural in early labor. Her labor has progressed slowly and she has been pushing for many hours. She ultimately has an unremarkable vaginal delivery of a health baby boy. The epidural is removed post delivery and she is eventually sent to the floor. During postdelivery rounds the next day, the patient complains of continued numbness on the anterolateral aspect of her thighs
Obturator nerve
Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
Femoral nerve
Sciatic nerve
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
cf7c7a94-baf5-5694-a608-a9418004cccc
While in preparation for placement of a central line, you perform ultrasonography on the patient's neck and notice the internal jugular vein (IJV) overlying the common carotid artery. Which of the following maneuvers will aid in decreasing the overlap between the IJV and the common carotid artery?
Neck flexion
Trendelenburg position
Rotation of head 0°-45° to contralateral side
Ultrasound probe placement toward clavicle
4
C
2
null
null
null
null
null
09fc3a23-8f56-5191-8781-bfae88b876e9
After performing an interscalene block, your patient complains of pain in his fourth and fifth digits. Which dermatomes are not adequately covered with an interscalene block?
C5-C6
C6-C7
C7-C8
C8-T1
4
D
2
null
null
null
null
null
d3ff6708-11e5-58a5-b377-a2448ca5bd40
During neuraxial blockade, the level of sympathetic blockade is generally how far away from the sensory level?
1-2 dermatomes above
4-6 dermatomes above
1-2 dermatomes below
4-6 dermatomes below
5
A
1
0 dermatome change
null
null
null
null
29606f86-158c-5a24-86de-a1343e2ee011
During neuraxial blockade, the level of sensory blockade, in general, is how many dermatomes away from the level of motor blockade?
0
2
4
6
5
B
1
8
null
null
null
null
865af3ff-862c-5a85-9ef5-0c0cfc6b101d
Cutaneous infiltration of a local anesthetic to block the intercostobrachial nerve provides anesthesia to which dermatome(s)?
C7
C8
T1
T2
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
35c554b2-cd69-5675-ba31-099039e4d867
5. Each respiratory center is correctly paired with its function EXCEPT which one of the following?
Dorsal respiratory center: provides ventilatory rate
Ventral respiratory center: coordinates exhalation
Apneustic center: prolongs exhalation via signals to ventral respiratory center
Pneumotaxic center: limits inspiration
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
2032b2c8-3eb2-54e0-8797-08534577715a
All of the following are examples of reflex or higher cortical structures that exert an influence on the respiratory centers/control of respiration EXCEPT which one?
Cough reflex
Hering-Breuer reflex
Reticular activating system
Bezold-Jarisch reflex
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
97f809bf-a993-5342-9831-e9a9eae6485c
Carotid body chemoreceptors communicate with the respiratory centers via which nerve?
Trigeminal
Glossopharyngeal
Vagus
Hypoglossal
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
6995bf51-9581-51f7-ab1c-33b79e791702
An infarct involving the hypothalamus would most likely result from occlusion of which artery?
Anterior spinal artery
Vertebral artery
Anterior cerebral artery
Middle cerebral artery
5
C
1
Posterior cerebral artery
null
null
null
null
74bd2e46-7993-5c35-9e9b-1a7f20d47e08
Regarding the gray matter in the spinal cord, all of the following are correct EXCEPT which one?
Consists of neurons, neuronal processes, and neuroglia
Butterfly or H-shaped
Categorized into columns and laminae
Ratio of gray to white matter is least at the cervical and lumbar regions
5
D
1
Each of the 10 Rexed laminae involved in sensory or motor pathways
null
null
null
null
126a46d7-fa30-512a-b2c3-cbef3adde1c6
Which of the following pathways carries fibers that control fine touch, vibration, proprioception, and pressure?
Dorsal column
Spinothalamic
Corticospinal
Reticulospinal
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
f30de17e-a6e8-520d-b339-f3b2cba25d6a
All of the following are true regarding the descending motor tracts EXCEPT which one?
They originate in either the cerebral cortex or brainstem.
The pathways are generally made of a two-neuron system.
The upper motor neuron fibers target lower motor neurons of the spinal cord or cranial nerves.
They are involved in assisting with voluntary movement.
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
e5e45454-6538-59cb-97e4-19d6427552e5
12. Which of the following pathways carries fibers that are involved in pain and temperature sensation?
Dorsal column
Spinothalamic
Corticospinal
Reticulospinal
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
a6820714-00fb-546c-a5d2-248f8903545a
The main functions of the meninges include all of the following EXCEPT which one?
Protecting the brain and spinal cord from mechanical injury
Providing blood supply to the skull and to the hemispheres
Providing a space for the flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
Producing cerebral spinal fluid
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
a1a6eb22-5b13-59e8-8642-763fb60c9dd4
Which layer of the meninges is pain sensitive?
Dura
Pia
Arachnoid
Subarachnoid
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
570c8fe6-c573-5d23-9a4e-6dcf2e55b832
What is the potential space between the arachnoid and pia mater?
Epidural
Subarachnoid
Subdural
Arachnoid
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
e3235d11-f2ab-552a-a6ce-d074d45645a6
What is the potential space between the dura and arachnoid mater?
Epidural
Subarachnoid
Subdural
Arachnoid
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
c8d76b17-7cda-5d99-b7f0-98204bf38a06
Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP), in the absence of intracranial pathology, is MOST closely correlated with which parameter?
Intracranial pressure (ICP)
Central venous pressure (CVP)
Cerebral blood volume (CBV)
Mean arterial blood pressure (MAP)
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
00cbec32-84d9-5d6b-8c90-c0f29bcf6af1
Which of the following situations has the least significant effect on cerebral blood flow (CBF)?
PaCO2 of 80
Temperature of 34°C
Increased blood viscosity
Acute metabolic acidosis
4
D
3
null
null
null
null
null
e148fa89-5803-5d0c-9dd2-6b316609b463
In regard to cerebral blood flow (CBF), cerebral metabolic rate (CMR), and volatile anesthetics, which of the following is a potential detrimental adverse effect?
Increase in blood flow and a decrease in metabolic demand
Increase in ICP
Redistribution of blood flow away from ischemic areas of brain
Decreased formation of cerebral spinal fluid
4
C
2
null
null
null
null
null
f66f0d22-a5d8-5c5f-82e5-c47be09d5f46
All of the following medications can be used to decrease elevated ICP EXCEPT which one?
Hypertonic saline
Furosemide
Propofol
Ketamine
5
D
1
Acetazolamide
null
null
null
null
aed05d49-45a0-5065-9955-f73a29dbaf91
Which of the following agents can cause an increase in CBF and CMRO2?
Nitrous oxide
Desflurane
Halothane
Sevoflurane
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
dd131f4e-4745-54e1-be7b-6d4be7e5cdaf
Which of the following inhalational agents facilitates CSF absorption?
Halothane
Isoflurane
Sevoflurane
Desflurane
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
2c804769-637b-561f-b146-b26f5eb6792a
24. Clinical goals for preventing or limiting neuronal tissue damage include all of the following EXCEPT which one?
Optimizing CPP
Decreasing metabolic requirements (basal and electrical)
Limiting effects of mediators of cellular injury
Tight glucose control
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
5d482672-b41c-52fe-b3e7-0a93af667977
What is the approximate total CSF volume?
350-500 mL
100-150 mL
200-250 mL
50-100 mL
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
b735c3f9-cb00-5741-ab8c-d9e95f162768
Which of the following pairings is correct with respect to the production or absorption of CSF?
Choroid plexus; cerebral venous sinuses
Arachnoid villi; third ventricle
Choroid plexus; subarachnoid space
Choroid plexus; lateral ventricles
5
A
1
Arachnoid villi; lateral ventricles
null
null
null
null
4b66a71e-bbc5-54c5-8861-f51a2ede0d18
All of these medications decrease CSF production EXCEPT which one?
Acetazolamide
Furosemide
Thiopental
Ketamine
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
14ebb09e-da7f-5465-8b88-fc78181c5fe0
Which of the following inhalational agents impedes CSF absorption?
Halothane
Isoflurane
Sevoflurane
Desflurane
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
aa34c33f-3192-5ab5-ac02-52f206b67475
Which intravenous (IV) anesthetic has been shown to provide some protection against focal ischemia?
Phenobarbital
Propofol
Etomidate
Fentanyl
5
A
1
Midazolam
null
null
null
null
0ba277bc-95e8-53a6-b5db-672860213bbd
In patients undergoing neurosurgery, all of the following are acceptable ventilator strategies EXCEPT which one?
Tidal volumes 6-8 cc/kg
Peak pressure <30 cm H2O
High positive end expiratory pressure
Avoidance of hypoventilation
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
b2b50b7d-017b-5d5d-aef5-e779d0a7b8f3
All of the following are acceptable ways to decrease elevated ICP EXCEPT which one?
Total IV anesthesia
Mannitol administration
Opioid administration
Elevation of the head of the bed
4
C
2
null
null
null
null
null
92d4161d-68d0-54c5-ab93-fb015e6af773
In regard to skeletal muscle contraction, all of the following are true EXCEPT which one?
Calcium triggers contraction by reaction with regulatory proteins that, in the absence of calcium, prevent interaction of actin and myosin.
Calcium entry into nerve terminals triggers the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft.
The binding of calcium to actin controls the movement of tropomyosin.
Myosin head releases ADP and Pi and triggers the power stroke of muscle contraction.
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
d195090d-0375-5738-91fd-d492253a9c5a
All of the following are potential substrates for immediately replenishing ATP within the muscle fiber EXCEPT which one?
Creatine phosphate
Glycogen
Free fatty acids (FFA)
Lactate
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
8e38fa1e-147c-59c1-9dbc-36a77ead502d
Binding of which molecule(s) is required for the myosin head to release its binding to actin?
ATP
GTP
ADP
cAMP
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
59bf5fef-587d-547a-85d6-e2e4fc4b2cb1
Activation of which opioid receptor types can provide relief from opioidinduced itching?
Mu
Delta
Sigma
Kappa
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
aa1c69a7-eccd-547e-8c53-ca507a1b9746
Which of the following drugs does not exhibit N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonism?
Methadone
Meperidine
Ketamine
Memantine
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
79ef2655-96ec-5188-a5e2-f30453b8b475
Which of the following conditions describes the process of activation of Aβ fibers via tactile, nonnoxious stimuli causing inhibition of interneurons in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, leading to inhibition of pain signals transmitted via C fibers?
Stimulation produces analgesia
Stress-induced analgesia
Gate control theory
Hyperanalgesia
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
08fe1498-4d78-5063-bd67-353f8ece61d0
Which of the following statements is false with regard to the pain experience of elderly patients as compared with younger patients?
Elderly patients may be undertreated because of stoicism or perceived different pain threshold.
Elderly patients may be more likely to experience confusion and delirium from treatment with opioids.
Elderly patients metabolize drugs more effectively than younger patients.
Neuraxial techniques can help circumvent the use of systemic opioids.
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
c2677c61-b853-511f-b616-e7a78ff05544
39. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the Monro-Kellie doctrine?
Given the nondistensible cranial vault, the volume of blood, CSF, and brain tissue must be in equilibrium to maintain ICP and CPP.
The cranial vault is distensible; therefore, there is adequate room for a spaceoccupying lesion without altering ICP.
Given the nondistensible cranial vault, brain tissue and CSF must remain in equilibrium to maintain ICP. CSF volume has no impact.
There is no relationship between brain tissue, CSF, and CBV and ICP.
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
c9237784-9be5-5fb2-a239-fef05adb1a8f
Which of the following is the most ubiquitous material in the epidural space?
Veins
Arteries
Fat
Lymphatics
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
1508a61e-f88d-5758-bb01-d0448cf55b3e
Which of the following is a typical tidal volume (TV) range during quiet breathing?
4-6 mL/kg
6-8 mL/kg
8-10 mL/kg
10-12 mL/kg
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
c320143f-956d-57fc-930c-5f5ce57a4f79
Forced expiratory volume within the first second divided by forced vital capacity (FEV1/FVC) is typically greater than or equal to which one of the following?
75%
65%
55%
45%
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
468f58a5-5507-5678-9330-2bb12836095f
FVC is normally equal to which one of the following?
Inspiratory capacity (IC)
Vital capacity (VC)
Functional residual capacity (FRC)
Total lung capacity (TLC)
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
f45c2d64-8790-57dd-89bd-7dc73309cdb8
Which lung volume is the primary determinant of oxygen reserve when apnea
Inspiratory capacity
Vital capacity
Functional residual capacity
Total lung capacity
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
bce6237a-96f2-5338-a5e8-db4112de5b9f
What is the name of the lung volume at passive end expiration?
Residual volume (RV)
Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
Vital capacity (VC)
Functional residual capacity (FRC)
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
a1a92318-3036-5e3e-91d6-e13d117760d5
6. What volumes comprise TLC?
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) + TV + ERV
IRV + TV
ERV + RV
VC + RV
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
de918ad8-d562-5617-aa56-8833e6486d65
What volumes comprise IC?
IRV + TV + ERV
IRV + TV
ERV + RV
VC + RV
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
23de4414-73eb-546c-b9e4-3a488905992b
What volumes comprise FRC?
IRV + TV + ERV
IRV + TV
ERV + RV
VC + RV
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
bb6afd84-ef43-5261-83ab-ae5ad2a90dc4
Which of the following statements is false regarding maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV)?
MVV is the largest volume that can be breathed in 1 minute voluntarily.
MVV measures the endurance of ventilatory muscles.
MVV is increased in patients with restrictive disease.
MVV is decreased in patients with obstructive disease.
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
cb0d389b-ebaa-5baf-9243-9e3791883dcc
Which of the following statements is false regarding FRC?
FRC increases 10% when a healthy subject lies down.
When FRC decreases, increased venous admixture results in arterial hypoxemia.
The midportion of the pulmonary volume-pressure curve at FRC defines lung compliance.
FRC may be used to quantify the degree of pulmonary restriction.
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
67398cd4-f0b3-50e1-9ce1-26744ba4cf12
The amount of net pressure required for inflation of an alveolus is dependent on which of the following?
Surface tension
Density of gas
Radius of the alveolus
A and C
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
6c963083-c759-53ba-9484-9b1b1f15e95d
Which of the following "laws" describes the pressure required within the alveolus to remain inflated?
Laplace's law
Boyle's law
The ideal gas law
Henry's law
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
91fe16ba-c5a4-5236-838c-fb845036eedd
Which type of alveolar cells produces surfactant?
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
d1a16d6d-04b6-5a9c-85b6-1aaefa963037
Type II alveolar cells:
Produce surfactant in the lungs
Modulate local electrolyte balance
Provide for immunologic lung defense
A and B
5
D
1
All of the above
null
null
null
null
4adc80db-f79f-5763-8307-d7c5a4bebb4d
Which of the following is/are depicted in a flow-volume loop?
Total lung capacity
Functional residual capacity
Tidal volume
All of the above
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
43b27697-7fab-5d14-9d9b-cd35f63544d1
Which of the following statements about flow-volume loops is false?
Shape and peak airflow rates during expiration at high lung volumes are effort dependent.
Flow-volume loops provide more precise and useful information in the diagnosis of upper airway and extrathoracic obstruction compared with MRI.
A flow-volume loop graphically demonstrates the flow generated during a forced expiratory maneuver followed by a forced inspiratory maneuver, plotted against the volume of gas expired.
Flow-volume loops provide information about total lung volume, TV, FRC, and RV.
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
f7e7cab0-7025-5119-b625-aa9fcf6414ba
Which of the following pulmonary structures participates in gas exchange?
Tnal bronchioles
Alveoli
Alveolar ducts
A and B
5
E
1
B and C
null
null
null
null
8a7f4f56-f904-544b-a71f-ebdb49e8fbdf
Which of the following statements regarding the distribution of ventilation in
There is an alveolar pressure gradient in the lung.
The negative intrapleural pressure results in more distended alveoli at the base of the lung.
More ventilation is delivered to dependent pulmonary areas.
The largest portion of TV reaches the apex of the lung.
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
8efe0c5c-710e-5d6e-b7ad-1bbf2e9c6d76
Which of the following statements regarding the distribution of blood flow in the lung is false?
Blood flow into the lung is mainly gravity dependent.
West Zone 1 is the most gravity-dependent portion of the lung.
Blood flow depends on the relationship between pulmonary artery pressure, alveolar pressure, and pulmonary venous pressure.
West Zone 1 receives ventilation in the absence of perfusion.
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
791d9d32-2d41-518e-99ba-dd5f43326968
Select the correct relationship between the pulmonary artery pressure (Ppa), alveolar pressure (PA), and pulmonary venous pressure (Ppv) in West Zone 3:
Ppa > Ppv > PA
Ppa = Ppv = PA
Ppa > PA > Ppv
PA > Ppa > Ppv
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
7c7ab101-5a97-5fd5-8d2e-a3050b99683f
The ideal V/Q ratio of 1 is believed to occur at approximately the level of which one of the following?
First rib
Third rib
Fifth rib
Seventh rib
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
End of preview. Expand in Data Studio

Dataset Description

AnesBench is designed to assess anesthesiology-related reasoning capabilities of Large Language Models (LLMs). It provides bilingual (English and Chinese) anesthesiology questions across two separate files. Each question is labeled with a three-level categorization of cognitive demands based on dual-process theory (System 1, System 1.x, and System 2), enabling evaluation of LLMs' knowledge, application, and clinical reasoning abilities across diverse linguistic contexts.

Subset File Total System 1 System 1.x System 2
English anesbench_en.json 4,343 2,960 1,028 355
Chinese anesbench_zh.json 3,529 2,784 534 211

JSON Sample

English (anesbench_en.json):

{
    "id": "91b5e145-57f2-5307-99e4-eafd75643de4",
    "question": "The concentration of a specific gas in solution depends on which of the following?",
    "A": "Temperature of the solution",
    "B": "Volume of the system",
    "C": "Solubility of the specific gas in that solution",
    "D": "Molecular weight of the gas",
    "choice_num": 4,
    "target": "C",
    "category": 1
}

Chinese (anesbench_zh.json):

{
    "A": "替代治疗",
    "B": "手术治疗",
    "C": "对症治疗",
    "D": "静脉输注糖皮质激素",
    "E": "补充盐皮质激素",
    "id": "78587bd9-f3f6-4118-b6eb-95ed7c91a0ec",
    "question": "Addison病抢救的主要措施是",
    "choice_num": 5,
    "target": "D",
    "category": 1
}

Field Explanations

Field Type Description
id string A randomly generated ID using UUID
question string The question stem
AI string Answer options (from A up to the total number of options)
choice_num int The number of options in this question
target string The correct answer to this question
category int The cognitive demand category of the question (1 = System 1, 2 = System 1.x, 3 = System 2)

Cognitive Demand Categories

Category Label Description
1 System 1 Fast, intuitive recall of factual knowledge
2 System 1.x Pattern recognition and application of learned rules
3 System 2 Deliberate, analytical clinical reasoning

Recommended Usage

  • Question Answering: QA in a zero-shot or few-shot setting, where the question is fed into a QA system. Accuracy should be used as the evaluation metric.
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